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41-5A-6
Section 41-5A-6 Chief examiner - Recovery audits for overpayments of state funds. (a) For the
purposes of this section, the following words have the following meanings: (1) CHIEF EXAMINER.
The Chief Examiner of Public Accounts. (2) OVERPAYMENT. Any payment in excess of amounts due
and includes failure to meet eligibility requirements, failure to identify third party liability
where applicable, any payment for an ineligible good or service, any payment for a good or
service not received, duplicate payments, invoice and pricing errors, failure to apply discounts,
rebates, or other allowances, failure to comply with contracts or purchasing agreements, or
both, failure to provide adequate documentation or necessary signatures, or both, on documents,
or any other inadvertent error resulting in overpayment. (3) RECOVERY AUDIT. A financial management
technique used to identify overpayments made by a state agency with respect to individuals,
vendors, service providers, and other entities in...
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10A-2-8.50
Section 10A-2-8.50 Definitions. REPEALED IN THE 2019 REGULAR SESSION BY ACT 2019-94 EFFECTIVE
JANUARY 1, 2020. THIS IS NOT IN THE CURRENT CODE SUPPLEMENT. In this division: (1) "Corporation"
includes any domestic or foreign predecessor entity of a corporation in a merger or other
transaction in which the predecessor's existence ceased upon consummation of the transaction.
(2) "Director" means an individual who is or was a director of a corporation or
an individual who, while a director of a corporation, is or was serving at the corporation's
request as a director, officer, partner, trustee, employee, or agent of another foreign or
domestic corporation, partnership, joint venture, trust, employee benefit plan, or other enterprise.
A director is considered to be serving an employee benefit plan at the corporation's request
if his or her duties to the corporation also impose duties on, or otherwise involve services
by, the director to the plan or to participants in or beneficiaries of the...
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30-3-191
Section 30-3-191 Definitions. When used in Sections 30-3-191 to 30-3-199, inclusive, the following
words shall have the following meanings: (1) ACCOUNT. A demand deposit account, checking or
negotiable withdrawal order account, savings account, time deposit account, or money-market
mutual fund account. (2) BUSINESS DAY. A day on which state offices are open for regular business.
(3) COMMERCIAL DRIVER LICENSE. A license issued to an individual that authorizes the individual
to drive a motor vehicle as part of conducting business. (4) CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION. Information
provided by a service applicant or recipient or obtained from other sources about him or her
which may be released only as required by court order or state or federal law. (5) COURT.
A court of competent jurisdiction or administrative agency having the authority to issue and
enforce support orders. (6) DATA MATCH. An automated process of matching specified information
from the financial records of financial institutions...
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25-4-78
Section 25-4-78 Disqualifications for benefits. An individual shall be disqualified for total
or partial unemployment for any of the following: (1) LABOR DISPUTE IN PLACE OF EMPLOYMENT.
For any week in which an individual's total or partial unemployment is directly due to a labor
dispute still in active progress in the establishment in which he or she is or was last employed.
For the purposes of this section only, the term labor dispute includes any controversy concerning
terms, tenure, or conditions of employment, or concerning the association or representation
of persons in negotiating, fixing, maintaining, changing, or seeking to arrange terms or conditions
of employment, regardless of whether the disputants stand in the proximate relation of employer
and employee. This definition shall not relate to a dispute between an individual worker and
his or her employer. (2) VOLUNTARILY QUITTING WORK. If an individual has left his or her most
recent bona fide work voluntarily without good...
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26-14-8
Section 26-14-8 Statewide central registry. (a) For the purposes of this section, the following
words shall have the following meanings, respectively: (1) INDICATED. When credible evidence
and professional judgment substantiates that an alleged perpetrator is responsible for child
abuse or neglect. (2) NOT INDICATED. When credible evidence and professional judgment does
not substantiate that an alleged perpetrator is responsible for child abuse or neglect. (b)
The Department of Human Resources shall establish a statewide central registry for reports
of child abuse and neglect made pursuant to this chapter. The central registry shall contain,
but shall not be limited to: (1) All information in the written report; (2) Record of the
final disposition of the report, including services offered and services accepted; (3) The
names and identifying data, dates, and circumstances of any persons requesting or receiving
information from the registry; provided, however, that requests for...
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27-2-24
Section 27-2-24 Examinations - Report; confidentiality of information. (a) The commissioner,
or his or her examiner, shall make a full and true written report of each examination. The
examination report shall contain only information obtained from examination of the books,
records, accounts, files, or other documents of, or relative to, the person examined, its
agents or other persons examined, or as ascertained from the testimony of its officers or
agents or other persons examined concerning its affairs, together with conclusions and recommendations
as the examiners find reasonable warranted from the facts. (b) No later than 60 days following
completion of the examination, the examiner in charge shall file with the department a verified
written report of examination under oath. Upon receipt of the verified report, the department
shall transmit the report to the company examined, together with a notice that the company
examined may make a written submission or rebuttal with respect to...
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10A-4-5.05
Section 10A-4-5.05 Interrogatories by licensing authority; generally (a) Each licensing authority
of Alabama may propound to any professional corporation, domestic or foreign, organized to
practice a profession within the jurisdiction of the licensing authority, and to any officer
or director thereof, the interrogatories as may be reasonably necessary and proper to enable
the licensing authority to ascertain whether the corporation has complied with all the provisions
of this chapter applicable to the professional corporation. The interrogatories shall be answered
within 30 days after the mailing thereof, or within the additional time as shall be fixed
by the licensing authority, and the answers thereto shall be full and complete and shall be
made in writing and under oath. If the interrogatories be directed to an individual they shall
be answered by him or her, and if directed to a corporation they shall be answered by the
president, vice president, secretary, or assistant secretary...
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13A-6-134
Section 13A-6-134 Arrest without warrant - Determination of predominant aggressor; notice requirements;
liability of officer. (a) If a law enforcement officer receives complaints of domestic violence
from two or more opposing persons, or if both parties have injuries, the officer shall evaluate
each complaint separately to determine who was the predominant aggressor. If the officer determines
that one person was the predominant physical aggressor, that person may be arrested; however,
a person who acts in a reasonable manner to protect himself or herself or another family or
household member from domestic violence may not be arrested for a violation of Section 13A-6-130,
13A-6-131, 13A-6-132, or 13A-6-138. In determining whether a person is the predominant aggressor,
the officer shall consider all of the following: (1) Prior complaints of domestic violence.
(2) The relative severity of the injuries inflicted on each person, including whether the
injuries are offensive versus defensive...
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19-3B-103
Section 19-3B-103 Definitions. In this chapter: (1) ACTION, with respect to an act of a trustee,
includes a failure to act. (2) ASCERTAINABLE STANDARD means a standard relating to an individual's
health, education, support, or maintenance within the meaning of Section 2041(b)(1)(A) or
2514(c)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as in effect on January 1, 2007, or as later
amended. (3) BENEFICIARY means a person that: (A) has a present or future beneficial interest
in a trust, vested or contingent; or (B) in a capacity other than that of trustee, holds a
power of appointment over trust property. (4) CHARITABLE TRUST means a trust, or portion of
a trust, created for a charitable purpose described in Section 19-3B-405(a). (5) CONSERVATOR
means a person appointed by the court to administer the estate of a minor or adult individual.
(6) ENVIRONMENTAL LAW means a federal, state, or local law, rule, regulation, or ordinance
relating to protection of the environment. (7) GUARDIAN means a...
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34-19-15
Section 34-19-15 Licensure requirements; duration; grounds for suspension, revocation, etc.,
of license; recordkeeping. (a) An individual desiring to be licensed as a midwife shall apply
to the board on forms provided by the board. Applicants for licensure shall submit evidence
satisfactory to the board that he or she has met all of the following requirements: (1) Is
at least 21 years of age. (2) Is a citizen of the United States or, if not a citizen of the
United States, is legally present in the United States with appropriate documentation from
the federal government. (3) Has obtained a certified professional midwife credential through
an education program or pathway accredited by the Midwifery Education Accreditation Council
or by another accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education.
(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (3) of subsection (a), the board may license the following:
(1) An applicant who has obtained a certified professional midwife credential...
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