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30-1-21
Section 30-1-21 THIS SECTION WAS ASSIGNED BY THE CODE COMMISSIONER IN THE 2019 REGULAR SESSION,
EFFECTIVE AUGUST 29, 2019. THIS IS NOT IN THE CURRENT CODE SUPPLEMENT. (a) On August 29, 2019
and thereafter, the only requirement for a marriage in this state shall be for parties who
are otherwise legally authorized to be married to enter into a marriage as provided in this
section. However, the judge of probate shall continue to collect the recording fee provided
for in subdivision (32) of subsection (b) of Section 12-19-90 for each marriage recorded with
the judge of probate. Furthermore, at the time the marriage is recorded, the judge of probate
shall also collect the fee provided for in Section 30-6-11 to be distributed as provided in
that section. (b) The marriage document required to be executed by the parties shall contain
information to identify the parties as set forth in Section 22-9A-6, as well as the following
minimum information: (1) The full legal names of both of the...
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38-13-3
Section 38-13-3 Criminal history background information check required for certain individuals;
exemptions. (a) On November 1, 2000, every employer, child care facility, adult care facility,
the Department of Human Resources, and child placing agency shall request the Alabama State
Law Enforcement Agency to conduct a criminal history background information check for the
following: (1) An employment applicant, employee or volunteer of an employer, child care facility,
adult care facility, or child placing agency. (2) A current foster parent for a child or adult
or adult household member of a foster family or applicant and an adult household member of
a foster family seeking approval to operate as a foster parent or foster family home for a
child placing agency or the Department of Human Resources. Unless otherwise provided in this
chapter, no criminal history background information check shall be conducted on a current
foster parent or household member of a foster family if a Federal...
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6-6-26.01
Section 6-6-26.01 Definitions. In this division: (1) "Collaborative law communication"
means a statement, whether oral or in a record, or verbal or nonverbal, that: (A) is made
to conduct, participate in, continue, or reconvene a collaborative law process; and (B) occurs
after the parties sign a collaborative law participation agreement and before the collaborative
law process is concluded. (2) "Collaborative law participation agreement" means
an agreement by persons to participate in a collaborative law process. (3) "Collaborative
law process" means a procedure intended to resolve a collaborative matter without intervention
by a tribunal in which persons: (A) sign a collaborative law participation agreement; and
(B) are represented by collaborative lawyers. (4) "Collaborative lawyer" means a
lawyer who represents a party in a collaborative law process. (5) "Collaborative matter"
means a dispute, transaction, claim, problem, or issue for resolution, including a dispute,
claim, or issue...
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19-3B-103
which is exercisable by another person only upon consent of the trustee or a person holding
an adverse interest. (12) PRESUMPTIVE REMAINDER BENEFICIARY means a person who would be entitled
to the principal of a trust if the income interest were immediately terminated, and if a trust
contains a power of appointment, then the holder of such power of appointment shall also be
a presumptive remainder beneficiary. (13) PROPERTY means anything that may be the subject
of ownership, whether real or personal, legal or equitable, or any interest therein.
Property includes choses in action, claims, and interests created by beneficiary designation
under policies of insurance, financial instruments and deferred compensation and other retirement
arrangements, whether revocable or irrevocable. (14) QUALIFIED BENEFICIARY means a living
beneficiary who, on the date the beneficiary's qualification is determined: (A) is a distributee
or permissible distributee of trust income or principal; (B) would be a...
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22-8A-3
by the law of this state to administer or provide health care in the ordinary course of business
or in the practice of a profession. (9) HEALTH CARE PROXY. Any person designated to act on
behalf of an individual pursuant to Section 22-8A-4. (10) LIFE-SUSTAINING TREATMENT. Any medical
treatment, procedure, or intervention that, in the judgment of the attending physician, when
applied to the patient, would serve only to prolong the dying process where the patient has
a terminal illness or injury, or would serve only to maintain the patient in a condition
of permanent unconsciousness. These procedures shall include, but are not limited to, assisted
ventilation, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, renal dialysis, surgical procedures, blood transfusions,
and the administration of drugs and antibiotics. Life-sustaining treatment shall not include
the administration of medication or the performance of any medical treatment where, in the
opinion of the attending physician, the medication or...
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15-20A-4
Section 15-20A-4 Definitions. For purposes of this chapter, the following words shall have
the following meanings: (1) ADULT SEX OFFENDER. A person convicted of a sex offense. (2) CHILD.
A person who has not attained the age of 12. (3) CHILDCARE FACILITY. A licensed child daycare
center, a licensed childcare facility, or any other childcare service that is exempt from
licensing pursuant to Section 38-7-3, if it is sufficiently conspicuous that a reasonable
person should know or recognize its location or its address has been provided to local law
enforcement. (4) CONVICTION. A verdict or finding of guilt as the result of a trial, a plea
of guilty, a plea of nolo contendere, or an Alford plea regardless of whether adjudication
was withheld. Conviction includes, but is not limited to, a conviction in a United States
territory, a conviction in a federal or military tribunal, including a court martial conducted
by the Armed Forces of the United States, a conviction for an offense committed...
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22-19-161
assistant by the State Board of Medical Examiners to remove or process a part. (35) "Technician"
means an individual determined to be qualified to remove or process parts by an appropriate
organization that is licensed, accredited, or regulated under federal or state law. The term
includes an enucleator. (36) "Tissue" means a portion of the human body other than
an organ or an eye. The term does not include blood unless the blood is donated for the purpose
of research or education. (37) "Tissue bank" means a person that is licensed, accredited,
or regulated under federal or state law to engage in the recovery, screening, testing, processing,
storage, or distribution of tissue. (38) "Transplant hospital" means a hospital
that furnishes organ transplants and other medical and surgical specialty services required
for the care of transplant patients. (39) "Will" means a disposition of real and
personal property to take effect after the death of a testator. (Act 2008-453, p. 867,
§1.)...
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38-9-6
arrangement where appropriate. (e) Any record of the department or other agency pertaining
to such a person shall not be open for public inspection. Information in a record shall not
be disclosed publicly in such a manner as to identify individuals, but may be made available
on application for cause to persons approved by the commissioner of the department or by the
court. (f) Placement may be made in an appropriate alternative living arrangement such as
a licensed nursing home, licensed personal care facility, or approved foster care home.
No person shall be committed to a mental health facility under this chapter. A court may enter
orders granting the department additional time to locate an appropriate licensed facility
in which to place a person living in an unlicensed facility. (g) If the person is eligible
for the adult services program of the department, usual department policies shall be followed
in regard to fees or payments, or both. If the person's income or resources, or...
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45-37-123.103
Section 45-37-123.103 Death benefits. (a) Preretirement death benefits. A vested member's beneficiary
is entitled to a preretirement joint survivorship pension, as described below. (1) MARRIED
MEMBER. If a married, active member dies, then the beneficiary may elect, on a form provided
by the pension board, to be paid in one of the following forms: a. One Hundred Percent Preretirement
Joint Survivorship Pension. If such member was eligible for a deferred retirement benefit
at the time of the member's death, then the beneficiary may elect to be paid in the form of
a 100 percent preretirement joint survivorship pension, which is a monthly annuity paid during
the beneficiary's lifetime which is equal to the actuarial equivalent of the benefits that
would have been paid to the member if, instead of dying, the member had terminated employment;
or b. Refund. The beneficiary may elect a refund of the member's employee contributions in
accordance with Section 45-37-123.104(4)b. (2) UNMARRIED...
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12-15-314
care to participate in activities that are age or developmentally appropriate for the child
based on a reasonable and prudent parent standard, provided the activities are consistent
with provisions of any existing court order, individualized service plan, or promulgated policy
of the department that provides guidance to caregivers concerning the reasonable and prudent
parent standard. The guidance shall include factors for the caregiver to consider prior to
allowing a child to participate in age or developmentally appropriate normal childhood activities.
(2) A caregiver shall be immune from liability in a civil action to recover damages for injury,
death, or loss to person or property that results from a caregiver's decisions using a reasonable
and prudent parent standard. This subsection shall not be construed to remove or limit any
existing liability protection provided by law. (Act 2008-277, p. 441, §18; Act 2010-712,
p. 1744, §13; Act 2016-129, p. 290, §1; Act 2018-273, §1.)...
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